The purpose is to approach a function with a polynomial in the environment of x=a.
We denote the consecutive derivatives of a function g(x) as
g'(x); g"(x); g(3)(x); g(4)(x); ...; g(n)(x); ...
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Theorem:
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If the n-th derivative of f(x) exists in a environment of x=0, there is exactly one polynomial V(x), of degree n or lower, such that V(0)=f(0); V'(0)=f'(0); V"(0)=f"(0); ... ; V(n)(0)=f(n)(0) |
Proof
Take
V(x) = a + b x + c x2 + ... + l xn
Then
V'(x) = b + 2c x + ... + n l xn-1
V"(x) = 2 c + 3.2.d + ... + n(n-1) l xn-2
...V(n) = n! l
and then
V(0) = a
V'(0) = b V"(0) = 2! c ...V(n)(0) = n! l
Now we require
V(0)=f(0); V'(0)=f'(0); V"(0)=f"(0); ... ; V(n)(0)=f(n)(0)<=>
a = f(0); b = f'(0); 2!c = f"(0); ... n! l = f(n)(0)
So all coefficients of V(x) are known and we can conclude :
The only polynomial of degree n or lower, such that
V(0)=f(0); V'(0)=f'(0); V"(0)=f"(0); ... ; V(n)(0)=f(n)(0)
is
f(0) + x.f'(0)/1! + x2.f"(0)/2! + x3.f(3)(0)/3! +...+ xn.f(n)(0)/n!
This is called the Maclaurin polynomial of order n for the function f(x).
Notation: Tnf(x)
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The Maclaurin polynomial of order n for the function f(x) is Tn f(x) = f(0) + x.f'(0)/1! + x2.f"(0)/2! + x3.f(3)(0)/3! +...+ xn.f(n)(0)/n! |
We know that if f(x) = ex then f(n)(x) = ex and f(n)(0) = 1
Thus
Tn ex = 1 + x/1! + x2/2! + x3/3! + ... + xn/n!
f(x) = sin(x) => f(0) = 0
f'(x) = cos(x) = sin(x + pi/2) => f'(0) = 1
f"(x) = -sin(x) = sin(x + 2.pi/2) => f"(0) = 0
f"'(x) = -cos(x) = sin(x + 3.pi/2) => f"'(0)= -1
...
f(n)(x) = sin(x + n.pi/2) => f(n)(0) = sin(n.pi/2)Thus
Tn sin(x) = x - x3/3! + x5/5! - x7/7! + ... + xn.sin(n.pi/2)/n!
If x is very close to 0, we see that x - x3/6 is a good approach for sin(x).
In the same way as above we find for cos(x)
Tn cos(x) = 1 - x2/2! + x4/4! - x6/6! + ... + xn.cos(n.pi/2)/n!
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f(x) = ln(1+x) => f(0) = 0
f'(x) = (1+x)-1 => f'(0) = 1
f"(x) = -1(1+x)-2 => f"(0) = -(1!)
f"'(x)= 2(1+x)-3 => f"'(0) = 2!f(4)= -2.3(1+x)-4 => f(4) = -(3!)...
Thus
Tn ln(1+x) = x/1 - x2/2 + x3/3 - x4/4 + ... + (-1)n-1.xn/n
f(x) = (1+x)q => f(0) = 1f'(x) = q(1+x)q-1 => f'(0) = qf"(x) = q(q-1)(1+x)q-2 => f"(0) = q(q-1)
f"'(x)= q(q-1)(q-2)(1+x)q-3 => f"'(0) = q(q-1)(q-2)...
Thus
Tn (1+x)q = 1 + q x + q(q-1)x2/2! + q(q-1)(q-2) x3/3! + ...
analogous
Tn (1+x)q = 1 - q x + q(q-1)x2/2! - q(q-1)(q-2) x3/3! + ...
For q = -1 we have
Tn (1+x)-1 = 1 + x + x2 + x3 + ... + xn
for q = 1/2 we have
Tn sqrt(1+x) = 1 + x/2 - x2/8 + ...
So, if x is very close to 0, we see that 1 + x/2 - x2/8 is a good approach
for sqrt(1+x).
analogous
Tn sqrt(1-x) = 1 - x/2 - x2/8 + ...
If x is very close to 0, we see that 1 + x/2 - x2/8 is a good approach
for sqrt(1-x).
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Theorem:
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If the n-th derivative of f(x) exists in an environment of x=a, there is exactly one polynomial V(x), of degree n or lower, such that V(a)=f(a); V'(a)=f'(a); V"(a)=f"(a); ... ; V(n)(a)=f(n)(a) |
Proof:
Take
V(x) = b + c (x - a) + d (x - a)2 + ... + l (x - a)n
In the same way as for the Maclaurin polynomial, you can show that
V(a) = f(a) <=> b = f(a)
V'(a) = f'(a) <=> c = f'(a)/1! V'(a) = f"(a) <=> d = f"(a)/2! ...V(n)(a) = f(n)(a) <=> l = f(n)(a)/n!
So all coefficients of V(x) are known and we can conclude :
The only polynomial of degree n or lower, such that
V(a)=f(a); V'(a)=f'(a); V"(a)=f"(a); ... ; V(n)(a)=f(n)(a)
is
f(a) + (x-a).f'(a)/1! + (x-a)2.f"(a)/2! + (x-a)3.f(3)(a)/3! +...+ (x-a)n.f(n)(a)/n!
This is called the Taylor polynomial of order n for the function f(x) in an environment of x=a.
Notation: Tn,af(x)
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The Taylor polynomial of order n for the function f(x) in an environment of x=a is Tn,a f(x) = f(a) + (x-a).f'(a)/1! + (x-a)2.f"(a)/2! + (x-a)3.f(3)(a)/3! +...+ (x-a)n.f(n)(a)/n! |
Let x = a + h and the previous formula becomes
Tn,a f(a + h) = f(a) + h.f'(a)/1! + h2.f"(a)/2! + h3.f(3)(a)/3! +...+ hn.f(n)(a)/n! |
In the same way as for the Maclaurin polynomial you'll find:
Tn,a ex = ea( 1 + (x-a)/1! + (x-a)2/2! + (x-a)3/3! + ... + (x-a)n/n!)
In the same way as for the Maclaurin polynomial you'll find:
Tn,a sin(x)
sin(a + i.pi/2)= sum ----------------- .(x-a)i for i=0...ni i!
In the same way as for the Maclaurin polynomial you'll find:
Tn,a cos(x)
cos(a + i.pi/2)= sum ----------------- .(x-a)i for i=0...ni i!
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Theorem:
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If f(n+1)(x) exists in an environment of a containing a+h, then f(a+h) = f(a) + h.f'(a)/1! + h2.f"(a)/2! + h3.f(3)(a)/3! +...+ hn.f(n)(a)/n! + hn+1.f(n+1)(c)/(n+1)! with c between a and a+h. |
Proof:
There is always a suitable number r such that
f(a+h) = f(a) + h.f'(a)/1! + h2.f"(a)/2!
+ h3.f(3)(a)/3! +...+ hn.f(n)(a)/n! + hn+1.r/(n+1)!
We'll prove that r = f(n+1)(c) with c between a and a+h.
Create the function
g(x) = f(a+x)-( f(a) + x.f'(a)/1! + x2.f"(a)/2!
+ x3.f(3)(a)/3! +...+ xn.f(n)(a)/n! + xn+1.r/(n+1)! )
and calculate the n+1 derivatives.
g'(x) = f'(a+x) -( f'(a) + x.f"(a)/1! + ...
+ xn-1.f(n)(a)/(n-1)! + xn.r/n! )g"(x) = f"(a+x) -( f"(a) + ... + xn-2.f(n)(a)/(n-2)! + xn-1.r/(n-1)! )
...
g(n)(x) = f(n)(a+x) -( f(n)(a) + x r )
g(n+1)(x) = f(n+1)(a+x)-r
Since f, ... f(n) are continuous in the environment of a, we can use Rolle's theorem on g(x) and all the derivatives.
g(0)=g(h) => there is a c1 between 0 and h such that g'(c1) = 0.
g'(0)=g'(c1) => there is a c2 between 0 and h such that g"(c2) = 0.
...
g(n)(0)=g(n)(cn) =>there is a cn+1 between 0 and h such
that g(n+1)(cn+1) = 0.And from this last conclusion, we can write
0 = f(n+1)(a+cn+1)-r<=> f(n+1)(c) = r for a value c between a and a+h.
The term hn+1.f(n+1)(c)/(n+1)! is called 'the derivative form of the remainder'.
Take the Taylor formula with derivative form of remainder, choose a = 0 and write x instead of h.
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If f(n+1)(x) exists in an environment of 0 containing x, then f(x) = f(0) + x.f'(0)/1! + x2.f"(0)/2! + x3.f(3)(0)/3! +...+ xn.f(n)(0)/n! + xn+1.f(n+1)(c)/(n+1)! with c between 0 and x. |
With the Maclaurin formula we can write
ex = 1 + x/1! + x2/2! + ... + xn/n! + ec.xn+1/(n+1)!
If n --> infinity then xn+1/(n+1)! has limit 0 for all x.
Therefore we can write
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ex = 1 + x/1! + x2/2! + ... + xn/n! + ... for all x |
With the Maclaurin formula we can write
sin(x) = x/1! - x3/3! + x5/5! - ... + sin(n.pi/2).xn/n! +
sin(c + (n+1).pi/2).xn+1/(n+1)!
If n --> infinity then xn+1/(n+1)! has limit 0 for all x.
Therefore we can write
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sin(x) = x/1! - x3/3! + x5/5! -x7/7! + ... |
In the same way as for sin(x) we can deduce the formula
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cos(x) = 1 - x2/2! + x4/4! -x6/6! + ... |